Geeez! Think about your question. Can you pay a seller outside of closing and show a lower sale price? You posted that you have experience, that you have done rehabs and sold properties (obviosuly you had to buy them too). Did you ever hear any of those aquaintances you mentioned(attorneys) say that you don't need to show the true sale price in a closing? Don't you think that would kinda be a big deal? Think of all the other advantages to such a closing, title coverage would be cheaper, banks could make 110% loans, transfer taxes (if any) would be less, the seller would have less income taxes to pay and the buyer would have less to basis when the property was sold...the list goes on.
Have you ever heard of the term FRAUD?
There are different categories, tax fraud, lender fraud, settlement fraud.....seems your thought of a loophole could touch on all of these. Pretty elementary for someone with the experience claimed. So yes, my one sentence above was simply to get you thinking.
But noooo, you feel compelled to point out a slight bit of sarcasim, which then leads me to spelling it out for you. So, IMO, if someone is experienced and asks a question like that it's pretty plain how they try to conduct their business, look for "loopholes" so we can lie. OTH, it's not a bad question for a newbie, and to that I would suggest if you are going to be in real estate, become familiar with the surrounding issues (legal contract issues, lending issues, taxation, insurance and RE commissions) that are based on any real estate settlement statement (A HUD-1, for residential is the required form and is a federal document, commercial can be on other settlement statements). Ever hear of the Real Estate Settlement Proceedures Act? Just one of those little federal laws that gets in the way of RE investors doing what ever they feel like!
At least you saved your reputation with the attorneys you know by asking that question here instead of asking them.
Yes, my comment was to get you to think. Yes, showing what the use of the property is rather than what it could be used for will determine the value of any property in any state at a point in time. If Iowa uses market value of RE as a basis for taxation, you might use that evaluation. I have never heard of any taxing authority taxing a property as a retail shop if it was a SFD, unless the SFD (building) was in fact used as a retail space. There are commercial buildings, like an old neighborhood grocery store that could currently be used for housing, but that would still be a commercial building until the property was reassessed for its current use.
And, if you do not state in your purchase contracts the value of personal property you must be using the fair market value of personal property (PP). If you were to be audited, can you show the FMV of the PP? Did you get a used appliance store to give you a value? Or, did you pull it out of thin air? Had the values been stated in the contract you would have a stated basis that could be defended. So, regardless of how insignificant PP might appear to be in your RE acquisitions, I suggest you list it to form your tax basis. Good Luck!