OK, can someone out there explain what is meant when someone acquires a property " subject to..." ? Subject to WHAT ?
I believe this means subject to existing financing, but I'm not sure. If so, how do you avoid the Due on Sale Clause? Or is this done with the approval of the mortgage company? What is the exit strategy for such a purchase/acquisition?
If you can explain in bullet format (A,B,C,...1,2,3,..) I sure would appreciate it. Thanks in advance.
Subject to's are conditions or contingencies that have to be met in order for you are a buyer to be able to purchase the property.
For example say you're getting a new for the property your buying and you use the subject to new mortgage at a say 6% interest not to exceed 6.75%. Well if the lending institution that will finance does not meet your requirements on the financing.
Subject to's are conditions that will allow you back out of the deal if they are not met by the seller of by the parties involved in your deal.
Here is another example; subject to appraisal, which means say you got a property under contract to purchase a house for $500,000 and the property only appraises at $475,000. Well the subject to appraisal condition is trigger allowing you to A. back out of the deal or B. or back to the negotiation table and show proof to the seller that the property is not worth $500k but rather $25k less and him either has to lower the price to the appraisal price or the deal is off because one or all your conditions on the contract were trigger.
They basically allow you to back or renegotiate the pending deal. You subject to's can be the normal conditions such as subject to appraisal, subject to inspection, subject to new mortgage...etc.
Or they can be as creative as possible in order to make a deal happen in your favor.
Here is a creative subject to; subject to owner including the grand piano and vintage pool table to be included in the sale of the property. If the seller agrees to include those items behind and then changes his mind during the inspections period. You can consider backing out of the deal or renegotiating the deal.
Harbinger is correct; however, EddieBoy is asking about something else entirely. If I find a Seller so inclined, I can get the Deed (usually in a " kitchen table closing" ), and I now own the house " subject-to" the existing financing. The loan stays in the original borrower's name. The lender only wants the payment, so the Due On Sale Clause is a moot issue.
Your exit strategy can be anything. You have full control, because you own the house. I prefer to Lease Option those houses, but you could also sell with a Land Contract, provide actual owner-financing with an AITD (wrap), or sell via subject-to with your Buyer (not recommended).
When you do a subject-to it is usually based on the existing financing. The way the due on sale clause is avoided is that the deed does not transfer to your name. Instead have your escrow company file a land-contract paperwork against the property so they can't sell it out from under you. Suggest you also have the escrow company handle the payments and any communications with the underlying lender. I've done dozens of subject to's, some are exact wraps of the underlying, some are not.
It's not really a sub2 the way you described it--it'sa LC with the Seller. The DOSC is a moot issue; the bank just wants to avoid having a nonperforming asset.
LC is short for Land Contract. When using a Land Contract, you are buying without paying off the underlying loan(s), so yes, you are buying subject-to the mortgage(s), but traditionally, sub2 means to get the Deed.
Around here Subject to is also referred to as a land contract or a contract for deed. None of those scenarios - around here - gets you the deed until you have completed the contract. However the deed is signed at the escrow company just so you have a deed to file when the contract is complete. However the contract is recorded instead of the deed until the end of the contract.
Why not just get the Deed? What if the Seller gets a judgment against him in the meantime? Or child support lien? I have students in your neck of the woods, so yes, there are people grabbing the Deed in your state. We do a " kitchen table closing" and have no need for an escrow. To date, not a single lender has called the Note due (though a few have threatened with a " form letter" ).
That is changing the discussion and in my opinion not considered a subject to transaction. You have not formally agreed to pay the note. You may indeed pay it but there is no formal agreement from what you are saying. I'm not saying it isn't done, I'm just saying don't call it a subject to transaction.
If a seller just gives you a deed then what is the obligation on your part? there is none.
Of course if you just get a quit claim deed then you really dont' have much anyway. At least with a warranty deed and a formal contract for deed or land contract you can get title insurance with it and a formal transfer.
There is no reason for a lender to call the note due, especially if it's being paid as agreed. They don't want the property either.
Dude, that is EXACTLY a Subject-To transaction. There are numerous Courses available on the Topic. Granted, this discussion board has no sub2 forum, but if you go to some of the other discussion boards, you will see a lot of info on it. And I never get a Quitclaim. I always get a Warranty Deed and record it. Just because you have a LC, I don't see where you have more incentive to pay. Either you are going to pay or not.
Do an internet search for John $Cash$ Locke. He is the premier sub2 teacher/lecturer in this country. William Tingle is also very popular. And, as always, when it comes to creative real estate, attorney Bill Bronchick is a good place to get accurate info.
What is the difference between a Quit Claim and a Warranty Deed, do you still do the closing at title with a Standard, Land Trust, and they write up the warranty deed. How is this done? Thank you so much!