Hi, I'm sorry but I will clarify for you. It's exctly like I mentioned and if anyone disagrees I urge them to seek competent financial/accounting advice. It's not someones fault if they wer misinformed or led to believe that such assumptions were or are correct, it's just a matter of misinformation. SPining the rules does not justify another rule.
Please ask any degreed accountant, ask an appraiser, and they will tell you taht there is a difference between Estmimated Market Value and Market Value, The Makret Value is never mentioned on any appraisal, it's an Estimate of Market Value.
This whole thing about look how much I made from buying that house is purley justification to pump up strategies and RE programs to sell books and materials. Ask a CPA, gosh, even an attroney should know!
What I quoted is Generally Accepted Accounting Principle requirements (GAAP).
You will see GAAP requirements in IRS regulations and who is to follow them. Business accounting in good form as required is in accordance with GAAP.
Bryan, I like your suit and obviously you read a book to know about a manager's internal rate of return, but your further description of bookkeeping leads me to believe that you may not have, let's say, an advanced knowledge of accounting. Which is not intended as a slam or to insult you, but you are way off here. The reason you can not convince a bank of this preceived equity is because it does not exist.
Look at it this way, when you fill out a 1003 for a loan you're required to put down the market value of your properties. If you call a property a 200K property when you acquired it 9 months ago for 100K and did not make improvements to it, you are over stating the assets on your application, as such would be determined by law enforcement! So, why should you use GAAP, to reflect the true nature of your financial position, so everyone can compare apples to apples, not oranges. That is exactly what Enron did, over state assets and income and it is illegal to do so
How do gurus get away with misleading people, because the claims of profiting are not in connection with any legal requirement in presenting a true picture of that financial position, it's pure BSing for marketing purposes.
The reason I am hammering away here is because there are so many new investors who are mislead into this thinking and it is not condoned nor accepted in any aspect of real estate where a true financial disclosure is required to be made. So, if one does go down that road, they need to do both "methods", one to deceive and exagerate and one for "official" reporting and business requirements.
ANother aspect, we pay tax on the profit of our sales, do you report more than your basis when you sell a property or would you say it's worth more than you sold it for? The seller that sold that property says it's worth X dollars, that's what they got for it, can the buyer say it's woth more because he thinks he got a good deal? Doesn't even make sence IMO. And, there is only one way to prove what a property is worth, that's by selling it, where the buyer and seller have basically equal knowledge, without either party having an undue advantage and conducted at arms length, where the property sold has had sufficient marketing time to the public, and where the value exchanged is in cash or it's equivelant, with good and merchantable title is given free and clear of encumbrances or liens. That probably sounds alot like the definition, widely accepted in the United States, of Market Value. So, is it possible to acquire a property below market, yes it is, if any of the conditions just mentioned were not accomplished. If you cut a deal with your brothe in law for less than what an asset is expected to sell for, your deal is not at arms length.
Maybe if you get a good deal from a bank. it's because it was not marketed suficiently (if it's trashed not many will look and the price reflects that) or perhaps the bank does not issue a Warranty Deed, so meeting the requirement for a good title may be somewhat encumbered and such is reflected in the price. So, what you paid for it is what it is worth and if it meets the tests for Market Value, that is the Market Value, any preceived value might be called My Value, but it's not Market Value. Geee, I hope that is clear, it's not just my opinion, it has a legal foundation. Bill