Did some research in the forums but could not find an exact answer to this one, hoping someone out there can help: What are the tax implications for the seller who owns a SFR outright and seller finances?
Background: we are moving to a new area and heard about a house that the owner owns outright who wants to rent when he and his wife move to a retirement community because he does not want the tax burden of a windfall. But he also does not want to be hassled with the house so plans on using a property manager. I asked if he would be interested in seller financing, which seems a win-win for both of us, but neither of us knows what the tax implications would be. He has probably owned the house for a long time and because of the location and current value, would have significant appreciation (well over $1M).
I appreciate any info. Thanks,
seller financing is complicated and I let my CPA handle. However in general each year he is taxed on a portion of his gain and the interest. I have done deals where we significantly lower the price with a higher interest rate and a payoff penalty to protect seller, that resulted in same net price (more a less) and saved the seller significantly in taxes. Sounds like he is wise enough that could be a win-win-win for everyone.
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