If it had appraised for $200k (allowing me to pull out more like $150k on the refi), I would have had almost no money in the property, making the cash on cash return near infinite.You also have to account for any financing costs and payoff of the initial loan if you use hard/private money on the initial purchase (which it appears you didn't, if you have no mortgage on the property), but the model is still the same.Taking that a step further:On a $140k mortgage at 4% interest for 30 years, my principal and interest payment is $668.

The $150 is my target cash flow per month for my initial offer. 

Here is Chase's definition of a 5/1 ARM (because it was quicker for me to cut and paste than to explain it):"A 5/1 adjustable rate mortgage (5/1 ARM) is an adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) with an interest rate that is initially fixed for five years then adjusts each year.

I chose the stock market initially due to its full hands off approach so i would not cut into my time.

It appears there was an initial mortgage at time of purchase.  4 years later, another for 100k more was executed. 

@Benjamin Papet That is correct, the goal of BRRRR is to get as much of your initial capital out to re-invest into the next BRRRR deal, which is the last "R" repeat. 

We do not charge any “pet rent” beyond this initial fee.

Turning the 2/1.5 into a 3/2, making an initial "good" investment into a great invesment.

It would either be a balloon or variable after the initial term.

I know that the landlord can be considered liable for falls/ slips if/when it was deemed they were negligent in addressing an issue that caused the fall/ trip (ex. knowing of a leaking pipe which caused floor to be wet) However, in this instance where it was due to actions of the tenant, would you initiate interventions to reduce the risk of future falls?