
8 May 2011 | 1 reply
Maybe this intentional, but it is not, to me at least, intuitive.

8 May 2011 | 1 reply
If your intent is to flip, then you will be classified as a "dealer" (for at least that property) and the property will be classified as "inventory."

13 June 2011 | 7 replies
My intention is to purchase the note and work out a deed-in-lieu (which I don't think is possible because the mortgagee doesn't have the deed to the property) or wait until Sheriff's sale, take possession of the property, fix it up and resell it.

12 May 2011 | 5 replies
I had intented to hold for lease but I received an unsolicited offer to sell the property for $300,000.

12 May 2011 | 9 replies
And you'll be wanting to bring prospective buyers into the place.If you're intention is to buy, and this looks like a good prospect, make an offer with an inspection contingency.

14 May 2011 | 0 replies
However, the local bank I was working with is unable to give us a letter of intent, which I found out about a week ago.

15 May 2011 | 13 replies
I don't have enough money, so I have the realtor wrote a cash offer with intention to use hard money to close. my hard money lender already approved the loan. but wonder if it is ok to use the hard money to close the sale due to the original offer was cash. do I need to inform the realtor about it?

28 May 2011 | 14 replies
No intention to be rude, there, I truly do not understand.Now I wonder if I should include some info like that in my Craigslist ad, so people would know.

10 August 2012 | 20 replies
My intent is to leverage my investments and not purchase them outright, but a number of you have suggested taking my whole 60k and purchasing an SFR without a mortgage.My mind is open to the idea, but could someone explain why you think that's a better strategy?