How can the terms of a loan NOT impact the 50% rule!!
I have asked this very same question here before and gotten the same answer that Mike oh provided (I love Mike Oh's contributions fyi):
"The 50% rule only states that the OE will be 50% of Gross Rents..........."
I think this is a fallacy in his argument over how to apply the 50% rule.
If one is to use the 50% rule to determine whether a property is a good purchase, then the terms of the loan MUST be factored in.
Lets assume for a moment that you can only get a 15 year loan on a property. And, you are an investor looking to get $100/door/month CF. Lets compare that to a 30 year loan and determine max purchase price with all else being equal:
Units: 2
Rents: $1200
Loan: 7%, 15 yrs (P+i=$400/month)
Max purchase price: $44,502.38
VS
Units: 2
Rents: $1200
Loan: 7%, 30 yrs (P+i=$400/month)
Max purchase price: $60,123.03
OR conversely
Purchase: $50,000
Rent: $1200
CF @ 15yr 6%: $89.04/m/door
CF @ 30yr 7%: $133.67/m/door
This is a huge difference!! If one finances for 15 years instead of 30 you magically spend less per month on maintenance, taxes, property management and other expenses?
So is it a good deal if you want $100 per door? The answer, I believe, is you have to look at the deal in terms of what is available in YOUR own personal situation.
If you can get a loan for 30 years at 5.0% interest rate, I would look at the property from that perspective. If you can only get 15 years with 7.0% you evaluate it from that perspective.
Whenever the 50% rule is discussed I often read the phrase "REAL WORLD EXPENSES." So I think using your available financing terms is the proper application of the 50% rule. I think MikeOh has the theory almost all right, but on this detail I think he is wrong.