I think there is a HUGE difference between meeting the 2% rule and getting the rent to cover you PITI payments. For example, with the duplex I mentioned in SD, my PITI is $620/month. The rent is $1270/month, so I have $650 left over for maintenance, repairs, vacancy, replacements reserves, and profit. In addition, I'm paying down my mortgage principle. To me this is an outstanding deal; I'd love to have 5 more like it. However, it doesn't come close to meeting the 2% rule because I paid $100K for the property; it would have to rent for $2K per month! If I were to buy something that just covers my PITI payment, this property would only have to rent for $620, but I would be losing tons of money on the repairs and when the property is vacant. So now I'm confused with the huge discrepancy in the advice being given.
Personally, I like to use the 1% rule: The rent minus owner-paid utilities should be at least 1% of the fixed-up cost of purchasing the property. That seems to give me a good enough margin, but then again I've only been doing this for 2.5 years, so maybe I'm just not experienced enough to know what all can go wrong. I'm also not relying on the rent to make ends meet, but I do only want to purchase properties that will "pay for themselves" and at least break even under the worst-case assumptions.