Hi guys,

I had just had a conversation with a local lender. Not the lowest rates but I enjoyed the team I've met so far.

They agreed to fund 100% of both purchase price and rehab costs for a fix and hold (rent) deal, but since it's our fist deal with them they want to put my other property (that I own free and clear) as a collateral.

My question is, how would it look like?

Let's say market value of the home I own in Virginia is $250K.

Let's say, the property I buy for rental is $220K purchase price including closing costs, $60K rehab, $300K ARV.

So, let's say the are giving me a short term loan of $280K that after rehab i would refinance (70%). Then the only portion of my property I should collateralize is $30K, right?  Not sure how it's done, but it definitely wouldn't make sense for me to put the entire property as collateral, as the total value of 2 properties greatly accedes the amount of the loan.

What is the reasonable way to structure it that is fair to me and yet gives a lender a peace of mind?

Would refinancing my own property (70%) and put it as a downpayment be a better decisions for me, financially? The problem with this, I can't really leverage and scale, as I only have 1 (well, the 2nd is in Europe, so that wouldn't count). And after 1 deal is complete the lender then doesn't need my property as a collateral and can land 100% on all future deals as they gain comfort in working together.

And if I do put property as collateral, what are my risks and how to avoid them?

Thank you...