Can a “Subject to” Transaction be done SAFELY?

Can a “Subject to” Transaction be done SAFELY?

Don KonipolBusiness Member
Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes

Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

4- not having another debt on your PFS

5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

The positives for the seller are 

1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
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T. Alan CeshkerPro Member
Attorney · 3409 Executive Center Drive Ste 110 Austin, Texas 78731 · Member since 2020 · 99 posts · 92 votes
1y
Quote from @Don Konipol:

Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

4- not having another debt on your PFS

5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

The positives for the seller are 

1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 


We have closed well over 10,000 wraps in our law and title office and have not had 1 go back to the bank because of a due on sale issue.  I have also closed dozens myself as the buyer and seller.  It is my primary method of investing.

If structured and closed correctly, they work.  You do have to be ready to deal with the due on sale clause issue - but this is doable.

As a seller, you need to be ready to deal with a buyer default -- which I have had to do.

Lastly, you cannot just close these anywhere with any contracting.  The key is to have the foundation of the transaction solid before embarking on this. 

Stay safe out there

Alan
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  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.

  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


  • T. Alan CeshkerPro Member
    Attorney · 3409 Executive Center Drive Ste 110 Austin, Texas 78731 · Member since 2020 · 99 posts · 92 votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 


    We have closed well over 10,000 wraps in our law and title office and have not had 1 go back to the bank because of a due on sale issue.  I have also closed dozens myself as the buyer and seller.  It is my primary method of investing.

    If structured and closed correctly, they work.  You do have to be ready to deal with the due on sale clause issue - but this is doable.

    As a seller, you need to be ready to deal with a buyer default -- which I have had to do.

    Lastly, you cannot just close these anywhere with any contracting.  The key is to have the foundation of the transaction solid before embarking on this. 

    Stay safe out there

    Alan
  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


    Always enjoy your posts, Ken.  Even if we sometimes disagree LOL.  More importantly, I often learn something! 
    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Jay HinrichsBusiness Member
    Real Estate Consultant · Summerlin, NV · Member since 2014 · 45k+ posts · 66k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


    Always enjoy your posts, Ken.  Even if we sometimes disagree LOL.  More importantly, I often learn something! 

    So true my Dad started a company in CA in 1980 called Cal Wrap the all inclusive DT had just come out and we only wrapped PRIVATE MORTGAGES  never bank mortgages. There was so much seller carry in those days.. When I was on my own and started to buy sub to in 90s and 2000 we took title sub too and it was all foreclosure rescue and all of them had significant day one equity other wise we would not fool with it. The intention and the bizz model was fix and flip and sell which we did we never held these longer than about 18 months. We did have a few called and we simply cut a check to retire the mortgage. But doing this we ran into a lot of crooks who once they realized they were not personally responsible for the debt just ripped rents and never paid on the underlying thereby totally fubaring the sellers.. And I rescued another small group that thought it was OK to buy these with NO equity or negative equity like we see people doing today they did about 35 of them .. then sold on lease options and those started defaulting left and right and you had a big mess.. they went broke and were lucky to not get criminally charged as the sellers of these got thier credit destroyed. 

    So in my mind this is only an advanced way of buying and not at all appropriate for the general public or starter investors who think I dont need much money..  

    in my mind for short term hold and control I like it  but to buy with zero equity to me is not all that smart unless its areas that are historic high appreciation markets. 
  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Jay Hinrichs:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


    Always enjoy your posts, Ken.  Even if we sometimes disagree LOL.  More importantly, I often learn something! 

    So true my Dad started a company in CA in 1980 called Cal Wrap the all inclusive DT had just come out and we only wrapped PRIVATE MORTGAGES  never bank mortgages. There was so much seller carry in those days.. When I was on my own and started to buy sub to in 90s and 2000 we took title sub too and it was all foreclosure rescue and all of them had significant day one equity other wise we would not fool with it. The intention and the bizz model was fix and flip and sell which we did we never held these longer than about 18 months. We did have a few called and we simply cut a check to retire the mortgage. But doing this we ran into a lot of crooks who once they realized they were not personally responsible for the debt just ripped rents and never paid on the underlying thereby totally fubaring the sellers.. And I rescued another small group that thought it was OK to buy these with NO equity or negative equity like we see people doing today they did about 35 of them .. then sold on lease options and those started defaulting left and right and you had a big mess.. they went broke and were lucky to not get criminally charged as the sellers of these got thier credit destroyed. 

    So in my mind this is only an advanced way of buying and not at all appropriate for the general public or starter investors who think I dont need much money..  

    in my mind for short term hold and control I like it  but to buy with zero equity to me is not all that smart unless its areas that are historic high appreciation markets. 

    Jay, agree with you 100%.  Amongst knowledgable, experienced investors the disagreement concerning sub to is between those who believe it’s too dangerous to be a legit strategy and those who while agreeing to the dangers think when handled by experienced, knowledgable, well capitalized investors it can be a strategy with benefits to both sides.   

    In previous threads I noticed that the vast majority of posters who believed subject to transactions were blankety bad identified as real estate brokers. Perhaps this view is influenced by the fact that the broker as middleman or agent is cut out from the vast majority of subject to transactions.  If so, that’s a bias that should be recognized and stated; just as I state my bias of historically completed successful subject to transactions on both the buy and sell side. 

    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Jay HinrichsBusiness Member
    Real Estate Consultant · Summerlin, NV · Member since 2014 · 45k+ posts · 66k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Jay Hinrichs:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


    Always enjoy your posts, Ken.  Even if we sometimes disagree LOL.  More importantly, I often learn something! 

    So true my Dad started a company in CA in 1980 called Cal Wrap the all inclusive DT had just come out and we only wrapped PRIVATE MORTGAGES  never bank mortgages. There was so much seller carry in those days.. When I was on my own and started to buy sub to in 90s and 2000 we took title sub too and it was all foreclosure rescue and all of them had significant day one equity other wise we would not fool with it. The intention and the bizz model was fix and flip and sell which we did we never held these longer than about 18 months. We did have a few called and we simply cut a check to retire the mortgage. But doing this we ran into a lot of crooks who once they realized they were not personally responsible for the debt just ripped rents and never paid on the underlying thereby totally fubaring the sellers.. And I rescued another small group that thought it was OK to buy these with NO equity or negative equity like we see people doing today they did about 35 of them .. then sold on lease options and those started defaulting left and right and you had a big mess.. they went broke and were lucky to not get criminally charged as the sellers of these got thier credit destroyed. 

    So in my mind this is only an advanced way of buying and not at all appropriate for the general public or starter investors who think I dont need much money..  

    in my mind for short term hold and control I like it  but to buy with zero equity to me is not all that smart unless its areas that are historic high appreciation markets. 

    Jay, agree with you 100%.  Amongst knowledgable, experienced investors the disagreement concerning sub to is between those who believe it’s too dangerous to be a legit strategy and those who while agreeing to the dangers think when handled by experienced, knowledgable, well capitalized investors it can be a strategy with benefits to both sides.   

    In previous threads I noticed that the vast majority of posters who believed subject to transactions were blankety bad identified as real estate brokers. Perhaps this view is influenced by the fact that the broker as middleman or agent is cut out from the vast majority of subject to transactions.  If so, that’s a bias that should be recognized and stated; just as I state my bias of historically completed successful subject to transactions on both the buy and sell side. 


    in my mind its much like syndication qualifications of the Accredited investor status. 

    Accredited  IE make 200 or 250k a year and net worth excluding personal resi of 1 mil or more probably OK for them as they will have the wherewithal to cure a default. And generally are not financial sociopaths that could care less about the sellers credit.. Good humans.

    non accredited have 50k in cash and no experience but take a training course or watch u tubes and I dont care WHOSE training them these folks are just a ticking time bomb .. And totally not appropriate for them.

    As to brokers dissing this.. I am a RE Broker in CA since 1975 and a ton of experience with it.. WE have to keep in mind many street level resi type agents really dont know the back end of Real Estate they only know what they know which is mom and pop are going to get a loan to buy mom and pops house.. or one of the vocal ones on BP against sub to is Jim as your probably alluding to.. My guess is he has seen sellers harmed in a big way in low value low credit markets he works in so for sure could have a negative bias.

    And this goes for Sellers to right now many are getting approached since you have armys of folks making offers this way ( I get them monthly and can tell they are sub to training disciples based on the offers they make) unsophisticated seller who does not engage a very good RE attorney to help with these is taking a massive risk
  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 


    We have closed well over 10,000 wraps in our law and title office and have not had 1 go back to the bank because of a due on sale issue.  I have also closed dozens myself as the buyer and seller.  It is my primary method of investing.

    If structured and closed correctly, they work.  You do have to be ready to deal with the due on sale clause issue - but this is doable.

    As a seller, you need to be ready to deal with a buyer default -- which I have had to do.

    Lastly, you cannot just close these anywhere with any contracting.  The key is to have the foundation of the transaction solid before embarking on this. 

    Stay safe out there

    Alan

    I agree with your general sentiment. Done correctly, there shouldn't be many/any that land back at the bank.

    Pace Morby said in a video last may that he had at least 10 called in early 2024. According to county recordings, he had to bring about $3,000,000 to the table to pay them off.

    @T. Alan CeshkerMy questions is: "Of the 10,000 or so that you have done, how many Due on Sale have been called in the last 2 years? Are we on the upswing of DOS being called? (regardless of how they were dealt with.)

     Also, are you actively tracking the two year outcome of every "wrap/subject to" that you do, or are you relying on hearsay about outcomes? Just curious about your sources.

  • T. Alan CeshkerPro Member
    Attorney · 3409 Executive Center Drive Ste 110 Austin, Texas 78731 · Member since 2020 · 99 posts · 92 votes
    1y

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.
  • Don KonipolBusiness Member
    OP
    Investor · The Woodlands TX / Avon, CT · Member since 2009 · 6k+ posts · 10k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.

    I guess without knowing the circumstances it’s not possible to say that this didn’t happen, i.e. is “made up”, but its sure hard to believe that property owners who had $20k to pay upfront and a house worth at least double the note had no better options?  

    Look, this example may indeed be true, though morally “questionable”. Which would beg the question of if the homeowners were in the mental capacity to legally enter into a transaction; if this transaction is somehow a violation of of consumer law or fraud, etc.  BUT, I also question if this was a real transaction or not.  Maybe it was - but I’ve seen a lot of times where people fabricated their “tract record”, their “resumes”, and their “educational credentials”. 

    Back about 40 years ago when gurus, mentorship’s, etc. was in its baby stages there was a guy going around being promoted as the epitome of real estate success now intent on “giving back” by sharing his experience and wisdom through high priced seminars, workshops, mentorship’s, “books and tapes”, etc.  Before this marketing program took off the individual in question had carelessly left his fingerprints on a glass of water.  Someone paid to run the prints, and it turned out that the individual in question was not whom he claimed to be; he was an unsuccessful professional actor; his experience was completely fabricated, and the “deals” that made up his “track record” were someone else’s.  Just because someone claims something doesn’t mean it (1) is the complete story (2) they participated in it or participated to the extent claimed (3) had the outcome they claimed and/or (4) happened at all.  

    Private Mortgage Financing Partners, LLC
  • Jay HinrichsBusiness Member
    Real Estate Consultant · Summerlin, NV · Member since 2014 · 45k+ posts · 66k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.

    I guess without knowing the circumstances it’s not possible to say that this didn’t happen, i.e. is “made up”, but its sure hard to believe that property owners who had $20k to pay upfront and a house worth at least double the note had no better options?  

    Look, this example may indeed be true, though morally “questionable”. Which would beg the question of if the homeowners were in the mental capacity to legally enter into a transaction; if this transaction is somehow a violation of of consumer law or fraud, etc.  BUT, I also question if this was a real transaction or not.  Maybe it was - but I’ve seen a lot of times where people fabricated their “tract record”, their “resumes”, and their “educational credentials”. 

    Back about 40 years ago when gurus, mentorship’s, etc. was in its baby stages there was a guy going around being promoted as the epitome of real estate success now intent on “giving back” by sharing his experience and wisdom through high priced seminars, workshops, mentorship’s, “books and tapes”, etc.  Before this marketing program took off the individual in question had carelessly left his fingerprints on a glass of water.  Someone paid to run the prints, and it turned out that the individual in question was not whom he claimed to be; he was an unsuccessful professional actor; his experience was completely fabricated, and the “deals” that made up his “track record” were someone else’s.  Just because someone claims something doesn’t mean it (1) is the complete story (2) they participated in it or participated to the extent claimed (3) had the outcome they claimed and/or (4) happened at all.  


    If the Warranty deed is not recorded then the title has not transferred and the original seller still owns it.. are you sure thats what was conveyed Ken.. ? 

    Don, as we know title and escrow is unique to each state  ( like I am just learning all about IOWA abstracts this last year as I entered that market.)

    When I did foreclosure rescue it was as Pace apparently described according to Ken. I have not seen it just taking face value that Ken is relating it correctly. My Sub toos generally were within 1 to 5 days of the auction so there was no time to do a formal escrow.. So my office prepped the transfer deeds .  And I walked them into the courthouse to record personally.

    Now to be fair we were a top client of Chicago title at the time and As long as we came into title they would insure our exit based on our purchase as we were well known to them and I gave them a ton of other business. As we know home made deeds ( Deeds not prepped by an attorney or title company) many times will not be insured on the exit depends on the title company and state. This was all pre 08 the laws in OR WA and CA changed drastically and foreclosure rescue is now highly scrutinized. To the point we stopped doing it.

    And as I have stated in other threads we were not looking for rentals we were and are fix and flip .. so underlying notes were always retired within 18 months.. So what Pace apparently talks about in my mind can certainly happen but there are new laws and such that are probably being totally glossed over. My last comment on the attorney who has done 10k of these and given my experience I find it hard to believe with the law of averages and peeps being peeps that only 10 of 10k have been called over all these years if they are wrapping conventional and VA and FHA type mortgages.. Not disputing that his claim is not accurate I just have a hard time thinking that with all that volume and all the moving parts of these transactions so few have been called.. I mean people go BK they die  relatives get in the deal divorces all sorts fo  the human condition right ?/  :)
  • Jay HinrichsBusiness Member
    Real Estate Consultant · Summerlin, NV · Member since 2014 · 45k+ posts · 66k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.

    I guess without knowing the circumstances it’s not possible to say that this didn’t happen, i.e. is “made up”, but its sure hard to believe that property owners who had $20k to pay upfront and a house worth at least double the note had no better options?  

    Look, this example may indeed be true, though morally “questionable”. Which would beg the question of if the homeowners were in the mental capacity to legally enter into a transaction; if this transaction is somehow a violation of of consumer law or fraud, etc.  BUT, I also question if this was a real transaction or not.  Maybe it was - but I’ve seen a lot of times where people fabricated their “tract record”, their “resumes”, and their “educational credentials”. 

    Back about 40 years ago when gurus, mentorship’s, etc. was in its baby stages there was a guy going around being promoted as the epitome of real estate success now intent on “giving back” by sharing his experience and wisdom through high priced seminars, workshops, mentorship’s, “books and tapes”, etc.  Before this marketing program took off the individual in question had carelessly left his fingerprints on a glass of water.  Someone paid to run the prints, and it turned out that the individual in question was not whom he claimed to be; he was an unsuccessful professional actor; his experience was completely fabricated, and the “deals” that made up his “track record” were someone else’s.  Just because someone claims something doesn’t mean it (1) is the complete story (2) they participated in it or participated to the extent claimed (3) had the outcome they claimed and/or (4) happened at all.  


    Don,  I have been involved as a vendor to many of the Training gurus over the years I provided capital for their students to fix and flip etc.  there is no question the set up speakers in the first event to get you to the 3 day event are Paid actors full stop.. U only see the principals at the big event that folks pay 30 to 40k to go to.. the freebie set up is an actor. the second 2 or 3 day weekend that is usually 1k to 2k is usually a past student earning extra money and the money paid to go to that event just covers the hotel meeting room and other expenses the big money is as stated getting those students to pay the 30 to 40k to come to the 4 or 5 day event where the guru is there along with the guru's staff.. AS you know its all well choreographed with the Utah fullfillment companies handling all the event planning and the call centers for these guys.
  • Jay HinrichsBusiness Member
    Real Estate Consultant · Summerlin, NV · Member since 2014 · 45k+ posts · 66k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.

    I guess without knowing the circumstances it’s not possible to say that this didn’t happen, i.e. is “made up”, but its sure hard to believe that property owners who had $20k to pay upfront and a house worth at least double the note had no better options?  

    Look, this example may indeed be true, though morally “questionable”. Which would beg the question of if the homeowners were in the mental capacity to legally enter into a transaction; if this transaction is somehow a violation of of consumer law or fraud, etc.  BUT, I also question if this was a real transaction or not.  Maybe it was - but I’ve seen a lot of times where people fabricated their “tract record”, their “resumes”, and their “educational credentials”. 

    Back about 40 years ago when gurus, mentorship’s, etc. was in its baby stages there was a guy going around being promoted as the epitome of real estate success now intent on “giving back” by sharing his experience and wisdom through high priced seminars, workshops, mentorship’s, “books and tapes”, etc.  Before this marketing program took off the individual in question had carelessly left his fingerprints on a glass of water.  Someone paid to run the prints, and it turned out that the individual in question was not whom he claimed to be; he was an unsuccessful professional actor; his experience was completely fabricated, and the “deals” that made up his “track record” were someone else’s.  Just because someone claims something doesn’t mean it (1) is the complete story (2) they participated in it or participated to the extent claimed (3) had the outcome they claimed and/or (4) happened at all.  

    Don I also need to add.. Chicago title in the day their customer service department kept a spread sheet for me of all the NODS in the 4 county market of Portland OR that is 3 Oregon counties and clark co was across the river.. this spread sheet which they updated daily would show address  lien position and property tax and any other judgements like IRS .. this was a service to garner my RE companies business I had 50 agents at the time working for me plus all my personal volume .. then I had a team of door knockers who started knocking doors ONLY within 7 days of the sale date ( as thats when people get really motivated to do something) Once a deal was struck ( we negotiated how much we were going to pay them and how long they could stay ( rent free mind you) the deal was done over the kitchen table cashiers check to them in exchange for a deed to me.. I would  do a cashiers check to the Trustee ( all them basically were in Seattle ) I would hire courier to hand deliver ( we knew all the staff personally at these companies so we could call them for a reinstatement figure) So those funds were couriered to Trustee  I recorded the deed and the sale would be cancelled on the steps and foreclosure buyers would be bummed out as they chased these for months only to have them go away and have no clue what happened.. I also bought heavily at the court house steps so I was there to witness it.  Lastly before we did reinstate and hand our money over title company would do a date down on the computer and give it to me verbally so yes we took risk there its not a title search . But since it was small money usually 20 to 40k to reinstate and 10k to 50k to the seller it was a risk worth taking and if one blew up on us well cost of doing bizz although I suspect many investors doing this these days a 50k loss could be devastating to them. We had a few issues but I cant recall a wipe out given the information we had at hand up front.. Most investors would have a hard time or find it impossible to duplicate what I had going on in the day.. :)  But I could teach this and talk theory and charge for it I guess :)

    Also need to reiterate this was pre 08 before the federal and state foreclosure rescue laws were passed .. once those passed we stopped to complicated and risk to great to try to do these and have them conform to the new laws.. IE in Oregon if you flip a property that you bought pre foreclosure you must give the seller 80% of your net profit if you sell it within 36 months.. so being flippers this was a no go for me and as you have so correctly pointed out there is just to many potential pit falls these days in these transaction for a high volume firm like mine to risk it..  Now I am sure other states its still wild wild west.. So your mileage may vary by state.  CA has these rules to I would be very suspect about the one in CA that was mentioned.

  • Shawn AckermanPro Member
    Real Estate Entrepreneur · Mid West, East Coast · Member since 2015 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y

    @Don Konipol Great topic man! 

    We have done our fair share of Sub2 deals and have had a great experience(As the buyer). There was one time when we assigned a sub2 deal and the assignee and seller did not communicate on the escrow analysis and mortgage payment amount change. The assignee was sending in the old payment when the new payment went up slightly. This lead to 3 months of late payment which ended up on sellers credit report.

    Weve gotten most of our sellers paid off within 12 months which is what we discussed with them at acquisition. 

    "SAFELY"????  I can't see it being very safe for the seller.  I think the more skin the buyer has in the game the better off the seller would be. but a $100K note with $6500 to reinstate and $15K in repairs? I think a seller would be in a better position in this scenario than selling a property Sub 2 that is current, minimal down payment from buyer and little repairs needed. 

  • Joe S.Pro Member
    Investor · San Antonio · Member since 2020 · 3k+ posts · 3k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Shawn Ackerman:

    @Don Konipol Great topic man! 

    We have done our fair share of Sub2 deals and have had a great experience(As the buyer). There was one time when we assigned a sub2 deal and the assignee and seller did not communicate on the escrow analysis and mortgage payment amount change. The assignee was sending in the old payment when the new payment went up slightly. This lead to 3 months of late payment which ended up on sellers credit report.

    Weve gotten most of our sellers paid off within 12 months which is what we discussed with them at acquisition. 

    "SAFELY"????  I can't see it being very safe for the seller.  I think the more skin the buyer has in the game the better off the seller would be. but a $100K note with $6500 to reinstate and $15K in repairs? I think a seller would be in a better position in this scenario than selling a property Sub 2 that is current, minimal down payment from buyer and little repairs needed. 

    The Sub2 assignment that you mentioned is one of the concerns about Sub2 assignments. Your new buyer should've had a POA, access to the online account, and had all future bills changed to his own mailing address. It is my opinion that the more that the previous seller tries to stay in control the more problems they create.

  • Shawn AckermanPro Member
    Real Estate Entrepreneur · Mid West, East Coast · Member since 2015 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y

    @Joe S. You got it exactly!! The seller wanted the mortgage payments to go to his home address and that caused the confusion as the buyer didn't get any notification of the mortgage payment change.  I think post like these are reminders of the nuances involved in this tine of creative deal making.  

  • Specialist · Winter Springs, FL · Member since 2009 · 1k+ posts · 747 votes
    1y
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  



     Do you have a cite for that case?  I'd like to take a look at it.

  • Investor · Get yourself trained before doing something inadvisable. · Member since 2024 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Jay Hinrichs:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol
    @Jay Hinrichs: @Chris Seveney:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:

    That is a fantastic question.



    @Peter Walther:

    For more than 20 years and over 15,000 closings we had 3 wraps called due.  We fixed all three easily.

    Then for the past approximate 3 years and numerous hundred closings, we have seen about 10 to 12 due on sale issues.  There are a few reasons for this: getting insurance in place improperly; inappropriate contact with the bank; one loan servicer that is looking for wraps; etc.  So, yes - there has been an increase in the percentage of wraps called due.  Still a very small percentage -- but an increase.

    On each of the approximate dozen that have occurred, only 1 loan was paid off and that was voluntary since the balance was very low.  We have fixed all the rest.

    I agree the due on sale clause is a risk in wraps.It is just a very small risk that can be fixed if needed.  And, all real estate transactions have risk.  Some more than others.  It is our job to manage the risk at the inception of the project.

    Thanks for the info and comments.

    Alan

    .
    Good info.

    I don't mean for you to talk out of class, but Pace Morby says in one of his recent videos that he is doing "table top" closings (closing outside of escrow)  "because he knows what he is doing". 

    Since he, as the "leader of the pack" has announced that information, which of course influences large numbers of others to follow suit, people who don't want to spend the money for a proper close;

    well . . . let me change my thought here, from asking a question to making a comment. The recklessness that trend represents and its implications are staggering.

    No response necessary ;-) 
    Table top closing?    Does this mean (1) no escrow or third party closer to ensure adherence to fairness and law?  (2) no independent third party escrow agent?  (3) no legal representation representing the interests of each side? (4) docs put together by someone not licensed to practice law in the state of the subject property? (5) use of “generic” documents as opposed to documents drawn to fullfill specific situations? (6) no title insurance? (7) no assurance of proper document filings? (8) no requirements in documents for purchaser to adhere to procedures to protect the seller? 

    What could possibly go wrong? 
    .
    Seems Pace Morby is doing this with people in foreclosure for "foreclosure avoidance" in AZ, TX, GA, NC, FL, CA and other places according to him. and says it is very profitable. Says in a video on his channel, he is making $150,000 on one deal where he bought the $650,000 property in question for $350,000 to solve their foreclosure problem, from an elderly couple and has given the owners (now previous owners) 6 months to pay him $500,000 to get the property back. He is actually bragging about this.

    Such a generous guy. It only cost the previous owners $20,000 up front for the fee to do this foreclosure avoidance scheme, and the owners, oops . . . "previous" owners have to make payments while they live in the house. They did a "table top" closing, warranty deed signed but not recorded, no legal representation, and if the elderly couple who had no money to cure their foreclosure can come up with $500,000 in 6 months, they can buy they property back. Now that the previous owners have nothing to borrow against, . . . how do they do that?

    Morby then promotes that if you join his group (which is what, $10,000 or more now) he will teach you how to equity strip and break the law and practice very bad real estate investing, just like him.

    I guess without knowing the circumstances it’s not possible to say that this didn’t happen, i.e. is “made up”, but its sure hard to believe that property owners who had $20k to pay upfront and a house worth at least double the note had no better options?  

    Look, this example may indeed be true, though morally “questionable”. Which would beg the question of if the homeowners were in the mental capacity to legally enter into a transaction; if this transaction is somehow a violation of of consumer law or fraud, etc.  BUT, I also question if this was a real transaction or not.  Maybe it was - but I’ve seen a lot of times where people fabricated their “tract record”, their “resumes”, and their “educational credentials”. 

    Back about 40 years ago when gurus, mentorship’s, etc. was in its baby stages there was a guy going around being promoted as the epitome of real estate success now intent on “giving back” by sharing his experience and wisdom through high priced seminars, workshops, mentorship’s, “books and tapes”, etc.  Before this marketing program took off the individual in question had carelessly left his fingerprints on a glass of water.  Someone paid to run the prints, and it turned out that the individual in question was not whom he claimed to be; he was an unsuccessful professional actor; his experience was completely fabricated, and the “deals” that made up his “track record” were someone else’s.  Just because someone claims something doesn’t mean it (1) is the complete story (2) they participated in it or participated to the extent claimed (3) had the outcome they claimed and/or (4) happened at all.  


    If the Warranty deed is not recorded then the title has not transferred and the original seller still owns it.. are you sure thats what was conveyed Ken.. ? 

    Don, as we know title and escrow is unique to each state  ( like I am just learning all about IOWA abstracts this last year as I entered that market.)

    When I did foreclosure rescue it was as Pace apparently described according to Ken. I have not seen it just taking face value that Ken is relating it correctly. My Sub toos generally were within 1 to 5 days of the auction so there was no time to do a formal escrow.. So my office prepped the transfer deeds .  And I walked them into the courthouse to record personally.

    Now to be fair we were a top client of Chicago title at the time and As long as we came into title they would insure our exit based on our purchase as we were well known to them and I gave them a ton of other business. As we know home made deeds ( Deeds not prepped by an attorney or title company) many times will not be insured on the exit depends on the title company and state. This was all pre 08 the laws in OR WA and CA changed drastically and foreclosure rescue is now highly scrutinized. To the point we stopped doing it.

    And as I have stated in other threads we were not looking for rentals we were and are fix and flip .. so underlying notes were always retired within 18 months.. So what Pace apparently talks about in my mind can certainly happen but there are new laws and such that are probably being totally glossed over. My last comment on the attorney who has done 10k of these and given my experience I find it hard to believe with the law of averages and peeps being peeps that only 10 of 10k have been called over all these years if they are wrapping conventional and VA and FHA type mortgages.. Not disputing that his claim is not accurate I just have a hard time thinking that with all that volume and all the moving parts of these transactions so few have been called.. I mean people go BK they die  relatives get in the deal divorces all sorts fo  the human condition right ?/  :)

    @Jay Hinrichs:  @Peter Walther:

    Yeah, it's best if he says it in his own words 
    You will need to place periods in the appropriate spots 

    ie .youtube.

    #251 Wholesale Hotline | LIVE Real Estate Investing Q&A

    https://www youtube com/watch?v=GBnBv_-HgjA

    Starting at 0:39:35   for foreclosure bailout 

    Starting at 1:04:10  for table top closing


    Mastering Seller Calls: How to Negotiate Like a Pro

    https://www youtube com/watch?v=wA2spgbOPaA

    Starting at 0:16:21 for details of foreclosure bailout

  • Real Estate Broker · Minneapolis, MN · Member since 2011 · 5k+ posts · 6k+ votes
    1y
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Jay Hinrichs:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:
    Quote from @Ken M.:
    Quote from @Don Konipol:

    Can a “subject to” transaction be done safely? 

    There’s been a LOT of “hostility” on BP toward subject to transactions.  Some posters have gone so far as to call these transactions scams, questioning the legality, morality, and ethics of the buyer.  While imo this is unfair, extreme and just plain incorrect; the detractors do rightly point out that (1) the seller remains liable for a mortgage note secured by a property they no longer own and (2) as long as the note remains outstanding the seller’s credit capacity will be impacted negatively, often resulting in the inability to obtain a mortgage for a home purchase.  They further point out that many sellers are unaware of the consequences of selling subject to. 

    I think it’s important to note that subject to became popular in 1980 - 1982 when it was virtually impossible to transact real estate using conventional financing.  Mortgage rates reached 18%, so transaction were all either owner finance, wrap, cash or subject to.  

    The possible negatives of subject to have been thoroughly discussed.  The positives are from the buyers prospective

    1- the ability to buy a property with little down payment

    2- the ability to obtain financing at below market rate

    3 -not needing to qualify for convention/institutional financing

    4- not having another debt on your PFS

    5 - not needing to pay points and other fees to obtain a new mortgage 

    The positives for the seller are 

    1- can possibly sell a property in which they have negative equity without bringing cash to the closing table

    2 -expand the pool of potential buyers 

    3 -possibly obtain a higher price/ quicker sale 

    4 - can utilize a wrap to potentially earn the “differential” on interest rate 

    5 -May be able to save the Realtors commission


    All this being established, here’s the BIG question:  Can a subject to transaction be done where both parties are reasonably protected?  Let us know what you think! 

    .
    These are very important points for each side of a creative finance transaction.


    A lot of SubTo transactions don't take these considerations into account when filling out their future loan applications. Omitting this information may be mortgage fraud. When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.
    ***************************
    I would modify #4 "4- not having another debt on your PFS" . Actually, on the loan application 1003's that I've seen, 
    ***************************

    Uniform Residential Loan Application  1003

    Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to list all properties you currently own and what you owe on them.

    and includes a full page of boxes to fill in such as 

    Property Value
    Status: Sold, Pending Sale, or Retained
    Intended Occupancy: Investment, Primary Residence, Second Home, Other
    Monthly Insurance, Taxes,
    Association Dues, etc. if not included in Monthly Mortgage Payment
    For 2-4 Unit Primary or Investment Property
    Monthly Rental Income

    Creditor Name Account Number
    Monthly Mortgage
    Payment Unpaid Balance To be paid off at or before closing
    Type: FHA, VA, Conventional, USDA-RD, Other
    Credit Limit (if applicable)

    It doesn't specifically ask who's name the loan is in. If you are taking the tax write off, you are acknowledging you are paying the debt. If you aren't making the payment, you don't get the tax write off and are subject to fraud for equity skimming.


     Here’s where you make a slight error.

    “Section 3: Financial Information — Real Estate. This section asks you to listall properties you currently own and what you owe on them”

    What YOU owe on them.  Unless you’ve signed some additional liability vis a vis the seller, YOU as the buyer of a property SUBJECT TO a mortgage on the property do not personally OWE anything.  

    “When buying a property SubTo, one is taking over responsibility for payment, thus incurring the debt. The court sees things that way.”

    No, when buying a property Subject to, the buyer is specifically NOT personally taking over responsibility for the debt.  That would be ASSUMING the debt.  This is merely purchasing a property that is encumbered.  And, no, the courts do NOT see it that way. Case law is well established differentiation between a loan assumption, and a subject to purchase.

    Fraud can be charged if the purchaser has not fully disclosed intent and circumstance to the seller, as well as the other way around.  However, we need to be clear that with a subject to transaction the debt is secured by the property; most often personal liability via a guarantee rests and remains with the seller/original borrower, the property buyer has no responsibility for the debt and no personal liability UNLESS he modified this status by contract agreement with the seller; in which case he may be liable to the seller only. 

    No problem. It's a distinction without a difference, according to the federal court judge I litigated under.

    Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made? Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan? Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? 

    I don't want to put words in your mouth, so I will just say those were issues as part of federal litigation. You have likely heard of Fidelity National Title Group, who sent 4 attorneys to litigate, because it was a Subject To case that would change Title liability.

    As always, facts are case specific.  


    “Would you also say the seller has no right to sue the buyer if the payments aren't made?”
    Anybody has “the right” to sue anybody else about just about anything.  Winning a judgement and having it upheld under appeal is different.  A lot depends on the contract between the buyer and seller; whether full disclosure was made; and whether the seller is able to utilize consumer law or whether both parties are real estate investor/professionals.

    “ Would you also say equity skimming can't occur because buyer never accepted responsibility for the loan?”

    I’d say that the prosecutor would have a harder time proving his case.  Equity skimming requires an INTENT to defraud.  If the buyer is losing money on his investment, and walks away without gain, then by definition there is no “equity skimming”.  Any transaction can be the basis for illegal or unethical behavior.  Subject to transaction are neither, they neutral. It’s the participants actions or inactions that will determine how they are perceived.

    “Would you also say the original contract has no enforceable power on the buyer without the signature of the buyer? ”

    If by “original contract” you’re speaking of the seller’s mortgage or deed of trust with the lender, then yes, the buyer is not a party to that contract.  What he is a party to is his contract with the seller, which depending on exactly what is included, can find the buyer liable to the seller for an action in relations to the existing note.  And that’s why it important for both parties to be represented by legal counsel.

    Look, I’ve done too many successful subject to and wrap transactions as both buyer and seller to believe that Subject to” transactions are somehow inherently bad.  What is bad is having the gurus collect money from armies of inexperienced, unknowledgeable and under capitalized wanna be investors who then seduce desperate home sellers (who have no idea what they’ve agreed to) into selling their homes without understanding the consequences.  And in these circumstances the chance of the buyer being sued for a default is rather high.  But the lawsuit will be based on the buyer’s interaction with the seller, not on a mortgage document or any legal documents to which he is not a party.

    The reason the “distinction” is important to me is that, as I’ve previously recounted in past posts, I’ve entered into many profitable subject to deals.  However, I’ve developed some rules for when I utilize a subject to or wrap transactions as both.  These are MY rules; I’d like to hear about others who have had successful (or not very successful) subject to /wrap transactions 

    1. I insist on the counter party in the transaction having legal representation. Not just stating they acknowledge their right to counsel, but actually retaining and being represented by counsel.  I am represented by counsel in EVERY real property transaction I engage in, so that includes myself.

    2. I will NOT deal with a homeowner or consumer; the deal must be investor to investor. Period

    3. If I’m the buyer the seller must acknowledge, in writing that they understand I have no liability on the note and that they retain liability.  Additionally they must acknowledge that this may affect their ability to obtain future financing.

    4. Whichever party makes the note payments must provide evidence of such payment to the other party in a timely manner. 

    5. Insurance must be in place on the property, with the seller as additional insured.

    6. The buyer must place and maintain a “reasonable” amount in an interest reserve to be used if a monetary default occurs.  

    These don’t GUARANTEE success, but provide a much better chance.  

    Ken, if the bottom line is you think subject to deals are or can be “dangerous” then I agree! 


    Good discussion. But, Agreeing to disagree. 
    Courts will surprise you on how they interpret "facts" and the implications.

    Oddly, the seller committed perjury in front of a federal judge on a couple of occasions and suffered no consequences. Law is like jello, very squishy. 


    Always enjoy your posts, Ken.  Even if we sometimes disagree LOL.  More importantly, I often learn something! 

    So true my Dad started a company in CA in 1980 called Cal Wrap the all inclusive DT had just come out and we only wrapped PRIVATE MORTGAGES  never bank mortgages. There was so much seller carry in those days.. When I was on my own and started to buy sub to in 90s and 2000 we took title sub too and it was all foreclosure rescue and all of them had significant day one equity other wise we would not fool with it. The intention and the bizz model was fix and flip and sell which we did we never held these longer than about 18 months. We did have a few called and we simply cut a check to retire the mortgage. But doing this we ran into a lot of crooks who once they realized they were not personally responsible for the debt just ripped rents and never paid on the underlying thereby totally fubaring the sellers.. And I rescued another small group that thought it was OK to buy these with NO equity or negative equity like we see people doing today they did about 35 of them .. then sold on lease options and those started defaulting left and right and you had a big mess.. they went broke and were lucky to not get criminally charged as the sellers of these got thier credit destroyed. 

    So in my mind this is only an advanced way of buying and not at all appropriate for the general public or starter investors who think I dont need much money..  

    in my mind for short term hold and control I like it  but to buy with zero equity to me is not all that smart unless its areas that are historic high appreciation markets. 

    Jay, agree with you 100%.  Amongst knowledgable, experienced investors the disagreement concerning sub to is between those who believe it’s too dangerous to be a legit strategy and those who while agreeing to the dangers think when handled by experienced, knowledgable, well capitalized investors it can be a strategy with benefits to both sides.   

    In previous threads I noticed that the vast majority of posters who believed subject to transactions were blankety bad identified as real estate brokers. Perhaps this view is influenced by the fact that the broker as middleman or agent is cut out from the vast majority of subject to transactions.  If so, that’s a bias that should be recognized and stated; just as I state my bias of historically completed successful subject to transactions on both the buy and sell side. 


    Don, my general consensus of SubTo as "Bad" absolutely has everything to do with my positioning as a R.E. Broker. It's the fact that I am informed at a level far greater than the vast majority of R.E. Agent's, that I live in a world of compliance and contract law. And my vision is not of just theory but what is actually happening out in the trenches. 

    Just like any transaction there is ways to do them legally, correctly, and illegally and incorrectly. 

    It's pretty rare that I see or hear of a standard transaction being done in a an illegal or legally questionable manner. The vast majority of questionable areas are in the arena of disclosures, or lack there of. 

    C4D's is the next level. I have seen a much higher occurrence of issues here ranging from legally questionable to out right blatant illegal actions. Thankfully we don't usually see it at any scale, most often it seems to have been "a" person acting off assumption vs facts and get's "corrected" after not much time. 

    LWO is next step down the ladder into the sewers. These, Lease with purchase options, ugh.... I can't recount how often I hear buyers lament how they got burned in them. And it's because buyers operated from assumption, a lack of comprehension and education, and acted upon emotion vs knowledge. A common thread is the floating Purchase Option Price, perpetually remaining just outside of reach. Combined with rents well above market range because it's playing off emotional perception that it's "worth it" because there going to buy that home, some day..... some-day...... 

    And we land at SubTo, the underbelly of the sewers where all the slim and sludge lies. 

    Now why do I say this? Can SubTo be done morally, ethically, correctly? Yeah, absolutely it can be. Unfortunately, I all but never see that. At least 98% of the marketing I see and receive for SubTo is blatantly predatory. When they hit me up, obviously doing 0 research because they threat me as Mr No-name Homeowner, I just go with it and play along to see how and where it goes. 

    NONE, not a single darn time has ANY of them done it legally/correctly. Every single one has, 100% of time, made out-right ILLEGAL promises and disclosures of how it all goes. Every single one of them has 100% of the time stated to conspiring to commit fraud of various types and kinds. When asked about DOS clause, 100% of them have said we will work together to keep it hush-hush and keep it "our little secret" because f-those dang evil banks and all there $-making from us average people...

    THAT is my #1 issue with SubTo, the absolute avalanche of BAD actors out there pressing SubTo. 

    My #2 issue with SubTo is all the people there F'ing over with this horned-cow manure there pulling. 

    Unsuspecting wanna-b investors buying reassignments from them, having a ticking time bomb passed over. And the unsuspecting sellers who were misinformed and uninformed. 

    If 97% of the time people who took there care to a certain auto shop for repairs, that within months after leaving 97% of the autos repaired at that shop, the motors blew-up! Would you say "oh, well those are just the bad mechanics, there is many good ones too" or would you say this shop is BAD? 

    So what if I own an auto shop a few towns away, 97% is still 97%. It's NOT about trying to scalp more clients, it's about protecting my industry. 

    I would love nothing more than to see the metrics flip, to 97%+ of SubTo being done correctly, morally, ethically, LEGALLY. 

    But were not there, were not even in the parking lot of that ballpark, were miles away. And I fear it's a ticking timebomb similar to NINJa financing was. And back then just like now on SubTo any sounding the warning alarms were also called various names and ridiculed. Yeah, how'd all that work out again???? 

    Kick in another inflation cycle like we had the past few years. Add in a recession with job layoffs. That kicks off defaults starting to rapidly rise. Kicks off rent rate compression from lack of renter affordability. Combine large inventories of MFH coming online. Which leads to various shady over-leveraged negative equity SubTo deals start imploding in mass AND the tsunami of calls to Atty G. offices from various sellers getting burned, the tsunami of court fillings of such...... It goes from 0 too "HOLLY SH!T" real fast.  

    THAT is the reality of it, and my issues with it all. It's loading a feces cannon. 

    It's one big gamble on the market trading sideways or up. Might as well be long call options in mass. Because the moment the market starts trading DOWN for any duration *BOOM* the whole damn thing explodes. 

    And the market trading DOWN is a VERY real potential. 

    Another significant inflationary cycle is not just very real but very PROBABLE. 

    It won't matter how much "equity" one has on paper if there isn't any dang buyers who can afford to buy at the, say 9%, 12%, 14% interest rate. 

    And before anyone calls me ridiculous on that inflation mention, remember I'm a Grandpa, I LIVED through 14% mortgage rates. YES it's VERY possible, it can happen and it HAS happened. I remember what all that was like and that environment come back now..... Oh-man, oh it would get so ugly so fast....... 

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