Would I be committing mortgage fraud?
So If I purchase a home as my primary residence with all 100% honest intent to live in it. Mortgage laws say that I intent to inhabit the property as my primary residence. However, what if I have to relocate to another state 3-6 months after closing?
At that point, I have to choices, I can rent the property out or sell it. Both which would be violating the rule/law to live in it for a year.
Help?
Thanks in advance