Are we holding a great investment — or a great mortgage attached to an average one?
My partner and I are trying to decide what this LTR should do for us over the next 20 years:
- Age: 44
- Property: 1910 brick bungalow, 4bd/2ba, 2,000 sq ft
- Purchase: $600K in 2016
- Financing: 3.5% fixed; originally financed as a second home due to out-of-state employment
- Current use: LTR/investment property; primary is 1mi south
- Current value: $1.1M
- Debt: $350K
- Gross equity: $750K
- Rent: $4,200/month
- Mortgage + escrow: $3,000/month
- PM: 5%
- Vacancy: essentially zero
- Repairs: minimal
- Current cap rate: mid-3% range
- 1031 experience: several successful exchanges; mechanics aren’t the issue
- Need for current cash flow: none; we’re optimising for long-term total return
Our FA’s shorthand is: bring him a 1031 with a meaningfully better cap rate and stronger overall economics, and he’ll rubber-stamp it.
The wrinkle is that the 3.5% debt may now be the best part of the deal. We suspect much of the easy appreciation is behind us and rents are near a ceiling.
Pure appreciation feels speculative. Midwest fourplexes could improve cash flow and ROE but add work. We’ve also considered investment properties in the Colorado mountains or PNW; either would need to pencil on day one, with geographic optionality as a bonus.
Our goal is total return, reasonable cash flow, low operational burden and optionality — not maximum yield.
At what expected forward return does an irreplaceable 3.5% mortgage stop being a sufficient reason to keep $750K of equity tied to the underlying asset?
We know how to execute the next deal. We’re trying to define what would make the next deal materially better than doing nothing.