Step transaction doctrine?

[Ruben Juarez]

Hey guys, just wondering if anyone has had success cash out refinancing an investment property, then a YEAR or more later, taking that same investment property and using a 1031 to roll into a like kind property maybe one with more units? Is this a gray area? Most articles I’ve found only apply to refinancing RIGHT BEFORE the 1031 and they all say the IRS hates it, but no one has really openly stated that if it’s a year plus prior to the 1031 if it’s a negative thing in the eyes of Uncle Sam. Thoughts? TIA!