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Updated over 7 years ago on . Most recent reply

Would you overpay on purchase price if cashflow is there?
Looking at a park and owner is asking $130k over what it will probably appraise for but is willing to finance the whole purchase. This got me thinking, if you could get the owner to finance 100% (or even 95%) of the purchase price at a rate and terms that would safely cash flow after all expenses (maintenance, vacancy, utilities, management, etc.).....would you overpay for a park? Assuming already on city water/sewer, individually metered utilities. At some point you'll pay it down enough to see equity. Until then, the cash flow should support the asset.
Most Popular Reply

@Tyler Weinrich This is just more of an abstract thought process because I don't really know any specifics:
1.) At a macro level the owner is trading a higher price ($130K over appraisal) for favorable terms to you, the buyer (5% down and not having to quality through a bank). The $130K sounds like a lot but for all I know it's a $3MM property. If it's a $300K property then it's a different ball of wax. Odds are it's somewhere in the middle and you're trading terms for purchase price.
2.) Terms for owner financing can/will make all of the difference in the world. If he's using a 15 year amortization schedule with 10% interest rate it's materially different (economically) than a commercial lender using a 25 year amortization tables and a 5% interest rate. So...well...terms matter. As will the (likely) impending balloon payment...
3.) The elephant in the room is the length of the loan. If the owner is looking for a 5 year balloon payment and you can't get it turned around, can't secure bank financing, etc. then what do you do? It sounds like you'd break-even-ish in the beginning so it's not like you're amassing money for the 25% down the bank will want. So how will you come up with that cash when the balloon is due?