Properties With No Comps

Properties With No Comps

Jeremy TaggartBusiness Member
Real Estate Agent · Pittsburgh, PA · Member since 2014 · 850 posts · 646 votes

Hello,

So currently I am pursuing two fourplexes and a duplex all being sold by the same seller, specifically the executor of the previous owner's estate, who passed away. I am trying to get all three together in order to get a better deal on the homes.

These homes are located in a largely rural area so there are literally no comparables to compare these homes to. Basically all of the homes are single family homes. I was planning on using 20% down and getting all three using conventional mortgages, however my broker said I would have to go commercial since there were no comps in the area.

He said that I could go commercial on one fourplex and the duplex, then use conventional on the other fourplex since the fourplex bought with a commerical loan could then be used as a comp.

I thought about doing this and then refinancing the two commerical loans into long term 30 year conventional loans. I do not have enough money to buy the first two in cash. What would be the best way to approach this situation? I also thought about using hard money/private lending to purchase the first two then paying them back once I refinanced those two homes into conventional mortgages. Let me know what ya'll think. 

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Investor · Honolulu, HI · Member since 2013 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
10y
Originally posted by @Russell Brazil:

@Account Closed Two people agreeing on a price is a market, so he is paying market price :).

Sometimes pricing real estate is more art than science, and that is likely the case here.

Both parties have to have market knowledge to have a market price.  If both parties are ignorant of the market they can still come to terms but that does not make it a market sale.

I see too many people here that don't even look for the market value of a property but use numbers that "make sense" when they don't even know what those numbers represent. 

Here it looks like he is looking at money coming out of the property but hasn't determined if that is possibly his own money coming back to him.  That's not an investment.

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  • Investor · Honolulu, HI · Member since 2013 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    10y

    Um, if there are no comps how do you know you are not over paying?

  • Rob WittPro Member
    Indianola, IA · Member since 2016 · 126 posts · 36 votes
    10y

    @Jeremy Taggart

    sound like you have a good plan. see if the Executor will do some degree of seller financing, the family still gets the money that way and after 3-5 years you can go to the bank or use OPM to pay the family off.

  • Jeremy TaggartBusiness Member
    OP
    Real Estate Agent · Pittsburgh, PA · Member since 2014 · 850 posts · 646 votes
    10y

    @Account Closed from an income standpoint it will have great cash flow for the price.

    @Rob Witt I was considering that too. Do you think it would be possible to do owner financing for the first two in order to get comps, then use conventional for the other and then get conventional loans on the other two?

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  • Investor · Honolulu, HI · Member since 2013 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    10y
    Originally posted by @Jeremy Taggart:

    @Account Closed from an income standpoint it will have great cash flow for the price.

    @Rob Witt

    Um, where did the "price" come from and you still have no evidence that you are not over paying.

  • Russell BrazilBusiness Member
    Moderator
    Real Estate Agent · Washington, D.C. · Member since 2012 · 17k+ posts · 30k+ votes
    10y

    @Account Closed Two people agreeing on a price is a market, so he is paying market price :).

    Sometimes pricing real estate is more art than science, and that is likely the case here.

  • Investor · Honolulu, HI · Member since 2013 · 3k+ posts · 1k+ votes
    10y
    Originally posted by @Russell Brazil:

    @Account Closed Two people agreeing on a price is a market, so he is paying market price :).

    Sometimes pricing real estate is more art than science, and that is likely the case here.

    Both parties have to have market knowledge to have a market price.  If both parties are ignorant of the market they can still come to terms but that does not make it a market sale.

    I see too many people here that don't even look for the market value of a property but use numbers that "make sense" when they don't even know what those numbers represent. 

    Here it looks like he is looking at money coming out of the property but hasn't determined if that is possibly his own money coming back to him.  That's not an investment.

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