Default on second mortgage, not first mortgage

[Dan Meier]

Hello. Let's say a homeowner owns a house worth $200,000 and owes $150,000 on the first mortgage and $50,000 on the second mortgage.

If the homeowner defaults on the second mortgage but is current on the first mortgage, how does this scenario play out? Can the lender on the second mortgage foreclose on the property, or does the lender on the first mortgage have a say whether the property goes to foreclosure?

Do you attempt a short sale when the default is on the second mortgage only?

Thanks, Dan.