wholesaling and "subject to" transactions

[Paras Shah]

Hi,

Can you get a property under contract (that you will eventually wholesale) from a seller without engaging in a "subject to" transaction if the seller still has a mortage on the house? Here I am assuming the seller has lots of equity and has a relatively small mortage. As a beginner I want to try and stay away from "subject to" transactions at least for the first few deals until I get comfortable.

Does the language in the purchase and sale agreement need to be different in case the seller has a mortgage? If so, what would be the needed language?

Thanks