Tax certificates are only sold once per year.If the person that owns the tax certificate wants to be paid, the certificate holder can request a tax deed.

The fees definitely will differ between those.For courthouse steps fees, the sheriff's dept should be able to give an idea if it's a sheriff sale; the trustee would have that info if a trustee sale.In my county's sheriff sales, the costs are all taken from the bid amount as well as liens that are to be paid ahead of the mortgage lien, then the mortgage lien gets paid, and then any remaining funds to lien holders in order of priority, and any overage still left goes to the borrower.  

Surplus funds get distributed as per law depending upon which lien holder foreclosed, etc.

LED lighted fans almost all have remotes so you don't have to have a double switch- we just mount the remote holder next to the light switch.

I guess you could, but the 1st position guy has most at stake and needs to be satisfied before #2 gets $0.01.So a junior debt holder going thru the trouble of foreclosure seems kind of poor investment for them. 

They are serving the 90-day notice today for a cost of $75.I tried calling PG&E to get info on the name of the account holder to the servicing address and they won't budge on releasing any info.

If the property is not sold, then the original lien holder who did the lien foreclosure to cause the auction, gets the property.

This means that a mortgage that was recorded before a tax sale will still be in place after the tax sale, and the mortgage holder can still enforce their rights under the mortgage.This information is supported by legal precedent, including case law from California courts, which have consistently held that a tax sale does not eliminate an existing mortgage.In summary, the evidence supports my statement that a tax deed sale in California does not eliminate an existing mortgage, as it only conveys the tax collector's interest in the property and does not affect the priority of other liens or encumbrances on the property."

As I'm sure you know, this means the mortgage holder can call a note due and payable in full within a very short period of time upon learning that you've transferred the title to the property (their collateral on a loan) out of your personal name an into something else.

Basically, how does the tax lien holder (investor) pay the future due taxes until the property is redeemed or the title is quieted?