Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:
Quote from @Doug Smith:
Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:
Quote from @Doug Smith:
Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:
Quote from @Doug Smith:
Quote from @T. Alan Ceshker:
Thanks for the question
Yes it does
First - get insurance in place correctly -- use a proven insurance provider -- this is most important
Educate seller to not contact the bank
Use a trust structure to have the conveyance appear to comply with Garn St Germain
Be ready to fix if needed via a deed flip flop or paying off the mortgage
These transactions should only be attempted by experienced and ready investors -- those with the knowledge and ability to fix if needed
Thanks
Alan
Hi Alan, I've made it no secret that I have ethical issues with many of the sub-to tactics being used nowadays, but I have to ask about your statement "educate your seller not to contact the bank". You're knowingly advising a client to hide a covenant break to a financial institution which weakens the lender's risk rating on a deal. How is that any different than concealment in cases such as bankruptcy? What is to keep an unqualified applicant from being declined a loan at a bank only to have them "secretly assume" a mortgage loan from a previously qualified applicant? The Due on Sale Clause was born out of Sub-To deals 30-40 years ago where properties are transferred to non-approved, usually unqualified applicants. How can a financial institution manage risk if properties are secretly being transferred to unqualified applicants with attorneys actively coaching clients to circumvent and conceal covenant breaks. I realize your an attorney, but that smells like mortgage fraud. What specific statutes keep what your advising from being concealment at best and mortgage fraud at worst?
Simple -- the fraudulent actions and misrepresentations you reference are against statutes and contractual terms. The due on sale clause is a permissive act allowed to the bank and not a prohibitory clause. Very simple.
In a wrap, nobody is deceiving the bank. They just are not proactively advising a permissive right has been triggered. This is not actionable conduct and any attorney that says it is -- is wrong and likely trying to scare their clients into buying something from them - legal services, coaching, docs or otherwise.
I may be in the wrong forum for a high level discussion on how to make wraps safer and more risk free than they already are.
Maybe someone will pop out soon and have something other than misinformation and scare tactics.
I remain hopeful
Thanks
Alan
Perhaps this is the wrong forum. My low-level intellect can't seem to function on your level. You're right...it is a permissive act, however your active recommendation of concealment is what I am taking issue with. When we underwrite a loan, we are underwriting the borrower. Sub-to without our permission increases our risk. You're recommendation to conceal it from us is what I am taking issue with.
A borrower, opposing counsel, adversary in any manner is only required to disclose what they are required to disclose. I liken it to Officer and A Gentleman quote "I will do all things fair and unfair to trip you up". We have no requirement to advise the lender of their permissive right. Failure to advise of this is not a breach, not fraud, not a misrepresentation, not a breach of duty, not a breach of contract -- nothing.
Let me ask you this -- since you are on the lender side of things -- how is a lender harmed by having their borrower required to pay their investment each month - ie the mortgage -- and another party now required to pay the mortgage each month. How does this harm a lender. I do not care if the second liable party is the worst credit risk know since man existed -- how does this harm the lender that 2 are liable to pay? It only increases the chance their mortgage is paid and their investment is sound and protected.
Let me know re this
But -- wraps are not leaving -- all the nay sayers in the world can post misinformation and fear mongering -- they will exist -- I merely wanted to provide a venue so we can do them as legal and sound as possible.
Again - maybe wrong forum
I can easily answer your question. Our spreads as lenders are very, very thin. We can't afford to be wrong more than a little bit. We attempt to keep delinquency below 0.6%. Of the "three C's of credit", capacity is the most important. Meaning "does the borrower have the ability to pay the loan back". We look for primary and secondary exit strategies for the borrower before the tertiary exit strategy of liquidating the collateral. When this happens, it is usually goes through the court system. This, as you know, takes a great deal of time. The time value of money kicks in for us and we end up taking a bath on the deal. As you've demonstrated a few times in this thread, counsel for the borrower will do all they can to draw it out which costs us legal bills and we're on "non-accrual" meaning we're paying for the money we lent out but we are not getting interest back in. When we loan money, we are betting on the person we gave the money to. We are harmed when the property is transferred to a weaker borrower and when attorneys actively coach these new property owners...owners we never agreed to work with...to bend the law and draw it out as long as they can. You've said that I am "fearmongering and spreading misinformation" and you've implied that your obviously in the wrong forum because, either because you feel some of us can't follow your line of thinking or that we're not providing you with an echochamber of agreement. What specifically have I said that is incorrect? Perhaps we see things differently. I have an attorney friend that I have spirited discussions with all the time. He feels that if something is legal and he can get away with it, then its moral. I disagree. The positions of active concealment you advocate most certainly harm us lenders.
You missed the salient question -- Lender has borrower liable for loan --- a wrap occurs -- there is now a new person (in addition to the first) that is liable for the loan -- 2 people are liable -- how does this decrease the security of the lender -- they still have their "approved" borrower -- and now they have another -- approved or not -- they have 2 -- 2 is better than 1 -- yes?
If not -- please identify how 2 people liable to pay me is worse than 1
It does weaken our position in many ways when the old borrower is under the assumption, as they are in the majority of sub-to deals that I've seen, that they no longer have to make payments and the new person is going to do it. The concealment you are advocating usually also means that the original borrower is not getting statements...but I'll get to a specific instance in a moment. Sub-to is the reason for the Due on Sale clause being added to the docs in the first place. One big issue, however, is that these loans are usually securitized. Investors who purchase the bond-like mortgage backed securities are provided a prospectus in which the nature of the assets held in the portfolio must meet specific guidelines and specific vetting processes for ALL borrowers. Transferring title to a new entity without the permission of the lender/traunche does, indeed, erode the risk rating of the loan and, thus, the risk rating of the portfolio as a whole potentially causing a credit downgrade. If you recall prior to the last crash, people used the same question you just did..."what's the harm"...when it came to adding or maintaining assets in a traunche where specific underwriting procedures weren't followed for all borrowers. Once again, my concern is your advocation of concealment. A lie of omission is still a lie regardless of the legal loopholes you use to justify it. Lenders are harmed via that concealment. Original, unsavvy borrowers, more often than not think that they no longer are on the hook for the loan. One case in point was where I served as an expert witness in a foreclosure case in Hillsborough County, FL. A borrower thought they were no longer responsible for payments and Wells Fargo was only sending statements to the address of the property. Wells didn't know to send the statements to the original borrower because of the concealment you are advocating. The attorney that asked me to be the witness represented the original note holder. As statements were not going to him, because of the concealment, he had no idea that the "new borrower" as you put it had not been making payments. He only learned of the delinquency when the lis pendens was filed and he was served. In most cases, your "new borrower" does not have 2 of the "C's...capacity and character/credit of the original borrower, but they are the ones getting the statements and supposedly making the payments. The policies you advocate most certainly do harm us lenders. You've mentioned on several occassions that you are in the wrong forum. Why do you feel that way? Do you feel the people on BP can't grasp what you're trying to say? I think we do...some of us just might not agree with your position.