Taking possession after Right of Redemption exercised.

8 Replies

I have paid 125% to the Tax Assessor Collector, because it has been less that one year, and the buyer at auction has not sent a response to my  request for cost. The buyer has also not given a quitclaim deed because they seem to just not want to deal with my request. The buyer does not live in the house but have it listed for sale. I need to get title or deed back but the title company said I need a deed recorded in my name before the can proceeded. I plan on selling the home for more than the home sold for at auction. Do I evit some that is not there? Please help.

I have asked the Tax Assessor Collector personel for help, they couldn't, so they sent me to their Law Office that takes care of all legal matters concerning property Tax Auctions, and they told me they can NOT give any advice and that I should hire an attorney. The Texas Tax Code can't cover every possibility, but I wish it would say what is needed to complete the process.

Perhaps you should start a new thread
“Help-Exercising tax sale redemption rights in Texas”. Someone with TX experience should chime in with info, or maybe refer you to a reasonable attorney. Also state which county it is in as local procedures can sometimes differ.

@Jaime Robles . You will not get any help from any of the County Clerks or Tax Collector / tax collector folks. IMO, they have all been instructed / indoctrinated to not provide any legal assistance as none (most) are Attorneys. 

As this situation is probably not something you can do yourself - Your best avenue is to hire your own attorney. 

In addition to what is said above, I would call the agent that has it listed. tell them they cant sell it, you have redeemed it. and get them to give you the phone contact info of the tax buyer. Lawyers are often not as expensive as you might think. It is worth a few hundred bucks to save your house. 

As already implied I would look very hard at the tax code I am sure they address this situation. 

I had a property that I foreclosed on. It was for sale and the agent did not respond. I changed the locks and took possession myself on the grounds that it was vacant and therefore the prior owner was not in possession. I don't know if that is a legal argument where I am and I am not suggesting that you do that or that it may be legal where you are.

I would love to know the true answer. If a property is vacant does that mean no one has possession and someone with a valid claim could take possession?

It cost $250 to talk to an attorney about this property issue. 1. I was told to continue sending the notice that the property has been redeemed (they did not respond to that last four letters sent, each one via USPS certified return receipt requested, USPS regular mail, FedEx, & UPS. 2. Send them a filled out Deed Without Warranty that will just need their signature (notarized). Get a Title Company attorney to tell me what it would take to get them to insure title without the buyers signature (my attorney does not know if this is possible and to try different title companies). 3. file a lawsuit and take them to court (which will take the cost above the value of the home. (he said he will also ask for attorney fees, but if the buyer gets an attorney, I may lose and have to pay their fees also) It should not be so hard to get you home back. It would be so much easier if I could just get the buyer to respond.