There's probably other posts out there on this but I'll be honest I'm short on time between working full time and family life so I appreciate any insights. My parent's neighbor passed away and the Son is handling the estate and selling the house. I feel sort of guilty even thinking about business considering the sad situation of someone passing, but I do also feel like I may be also be able to provide value to the Son so I'm not trying to swoop in like a vulture by any means. My parents would often look after the older couple since they lived behind them and would check in on them etc. They were pretty close neighbors for over 30 years. How can I delicately propose that if he were interested, to potentially sell directly to me and emphasize that we could avoid the realtor fees in doing so? Granted, I'm not even 100% sure if my offer would be a better deal than him going through the MLS depending on the numbers, so I'd like to find a way to work that into the conversation as well. I would, of course, be honest with him if I thought he would be better off putting it on the market. I'll be doing my research on comps etc and also looking to find some articles that help with dealing with these types of situations, but figured there's a lot of really knowledgeable people on here so thought I'd ask for experiences on how you reached out to someone directly.
Also, I've never had any interactions with the Son personally since he is a bit older than myself, but my parents and his knew each other and knew of me so I'm not a complete stranger. I feel like that also makes me feel a little awkward, but I'd really love to put myself out there and hopefully something mutually beneficial can come from it!
Well the right thing to do is put an offer in once it is listed. They should be allowed to get the most possible for their property and not worry about the agent fee.
You could possibly say you would offer 10% below appraised value with no contingencies.
As someone whose parents passed i would feel unhappy if someone tried to lowball us due to the circumstances.
I'm not trying to low ball whatsoever so if that came across unclear in my original message, that's not my intent. My thoughts are that if he goes through the MLS, gets an offer and pays agent fees, isn't it possible that if he would've went directly through me with that same offer amount he could actually get more due to not paying the agent fees? Or is that assuming that if he lists on MLS that he would have the buyer cover the fees?