1st upside down what happens to 2nd Mortgage
Hi, My property in California, is appraised approx at $320,000 and my 1st balance is approx $360,000. My second is for approx $73,000. I've stopped paying the 2nd and I'm trying for a loan mod on the 1st. Would the 2nd go forward w/ foreclosure even though they will not get anything at all? Should I write to them asking to forgive the loan and get it off their books? Any help/advice will be appreciated. Thanks.