I’m looking at fourplex that is priced at $145k. The owner will finance with $15k down, 2-year call, 8.5% 30 years amortized. I put that into an amortization calculator and it looked like the payoff for the original loan of $130,000 would be $359,852. Am I correct in the way I am looking at this? If so, this property would never appraise for anywhere near that amount when the 2 year call ended, so why would anyone do this? I feel like I must be missing something, or this person might be intentionally trying to trap someone inexperienced.