Updated over 11 years ago on . Most recent reply
Are these terms good?
Hello,
We are new to investor lending posted below is the offer we have. I not sure what it means by what they are holding and the reserves part. Could anyone shed some light on this? And if its a ok deal or not? Any comments would be great! Thanks!
The loan will be $46,250 (55% x 85k)
Were holding 45k rehab + 20% = 54k
You will be 9k short + closing costs and reserves(that you will need to bring at closing)
Interest will be 1.5% per month
No prepayment penalty
6 month term
Most Popular Reply
Marshall, that is not a good deal.
I will translate:
The loan will be made for $46,250. Somebody did bad math. They are implying the loan is at 55% LTV (Loan to Value [of property]). The property is noted as being worth $85,000. The loan amount is 55% of $84,090.91. The proper math based on the statement is $46,750.
The next line is the rehab reserves. They will capitalize $45,000 for rehab purposes. It appears they have mandated a 20% contingency on top of the total amount estimated for rehab. There is absolutely no need for such a thing. Experienced folks would never agree to this feature. Since they will be the ones funding the rehab capital, they are actually driving the cost of the loan up for you. I really do not like this idea. This screams somebody is taking advantage of you or they don't know what they are doing.
If the lender capitalizes 55% of the purchase ( per their numbers 54.41%) and then capitalizes the total rehab for $45k, you will have a loan amount of $91,250. It is not clear if the rehab dollars will accrue interest, but that would be customary so we will assume so. The plus 20% means, they are actually writing you a loan, secured by the property, for $100,250. So they have an additional $10k in there that would likely accrue interest that frankly they didn't actually give to you to use but it appears they want interest on. That does not fly.
The interest of 1.5% per month is actually 19.56% annual interest. That is pretty high for residential hard money compared to what some other folks are willing to lend at. It is not clear, now that I wrote that, what the type of property is (commercial/residential) or what inherent risks come with but since you are new to the game, I will assume it is not all that bad of a property. So I do not see where that type of high rate is warranted.
The loan will have no prepayment penalty and with that sort of interest, it should not.
The loan matures in 6 months. I am guessing, since it is not explict in the post, the loan will be interest only. (If it was not your payments would be amortized over term either not given or the 6 months, which would make this a tough loan to pay). So at the end of the six months, you pay off the entire balance of the loan. So we are back to, what the heck happened with this extra $10k?
If they write the note for the $100,250k, then you will have to pay that at maturity. Yet they didn't "really" capitalize the $10k. You can't touch it or use it. From the post, it seems pretty certain they are writing that amount into the loan. This is why they show you the total cost on that line is $54k. If this were some other type of reserve not included in the principal balance of the loan, it would need it's own line to explain the details of how that would work. So, therefore, somebody wants you to pay an extra $10k that you technically didn't borrower and couldn't use.
Moral of the story, as I said, this is NOT a good deal. It is actually worse than a bad deal. The person who created these terms does not really seem to know what they are doing in structuring the loan to reduce their risk it seems. If the above is addressed and you find that is not what they meant, I would still have issues with their failure to do simple math to calculate the loan amount. I would also have a big problem with their inability to properly communicate their terms.
Moral of the story. I recommend you find someone else.



