Hello everyone,

I recently came across two properties being sold together by a real estate investor. I found out that the seller still had a mortgage on the properties, so I approached him about conducting a "subject-to" deal. After a day or so of deliberation, he informed me that according to the bank his loans were non-assumable. 

Now, I understand that there is a difference between "subject-to" and "assuming" a mortgage...And I also understand that certain mortgage contracts stipulate that the mortgage cannot be assumed. 

However, does the fact that a mortgage is considered "non-assumable" ALSO mean that it cannot be taken "subject-to"?

Thanks for your help!

Tyler