Looking to get some clarification in terms of refinancing my second property and that paying taxes part. Still trying to come to terms on maximizing tax benefits. (Not sure if I did properly on my first refinance and sell)
I'm will use an example so to keep numbers simple but should still illustrate what I'm trying to get at. So with that, I:
Buy property for $100,000
Down payment = $25,000
Mortgage = $75,000
36 Months Later: Property Has Appreciated
Property value now = $150,000
In which case I...
Refinance $30,000 out of the property
Making New Mortgage = $120,000
I then wait 1 more year to then sell property at $170,000.
So my questions is...When I sell do I pay taxes on the difference between what I originally bought and sold property so on the
$170,000 - $100,000 = $70,000 (What I pay taxes on?)
Or do I only have to pay the taxes on the difference after that refinanced amount, being:
$170,000 - $120,000 = $50,000 (What I pay taxes on?)
If it is that 2nd part option then that should beg the question of if I should refinance most of the value out of the property, tax free, before I sell the property so I only pay taxes on the little difference?
Or is the only way to delay paying those taxes is to 1031 those profits into a larger property?
@Ryan Fisher you bought the property for 100K that is your starting basis. Subtract 4 years of depreciation and add whatever capital improvements you made. That is your adjusted cost basis. You will be taxed on the difference between your net sale price and your adjusted cost basis. In your example it's the $70K ish. Debt is not an indicator of what your tax liability would be.
And yes, the way to alleviate that is to add a number to the BRRRR strategy - 1031. Buy it, rehab it, rent it, refinance it, and sell it with a 1031 and buy your next two value adds inside the 1031.