If your income supports an owner-occupied residence (financed) and one investment property (financed), and the investment property rent is offsetting the debt (successful rental), does the bank look at this when determining if you can finance a second investment property (I.e., can’t afford three mortgages without rent, but can with rent). Is there some kind of period you have to have a rental property/rental income before the bank allows it as “real” income/foregoes your previous mortgage “risk”?
Some banks have overlays. Fannie Mae allows for 75% of potential rental income on a new purchase and 75% of rental income on a property not yet reflected on tax returns. For properties that are on tax returns that is what a lender is going to look at.