Probate/Succession question regarding owner's interest

[Greg Tunes]

I received a phone call from a seller. However, I was told that the property has to go through probate/succession first. No big problem, right? But, during the conversation,  I was informed that the property was in the seller's father and stepmother's name. The stepmother passed first. Then, the seller's father passed away. The seller stated that the stepmother had no children. So, she believes the stepmother's interest went entirely to the father. Side-note: the parents passed away well over a decade ago and there was no will.

I'm not an expert in this field, but this does not seem right. I am wrong to think that the stepmother's interest is supposed to be split in half (1/2 to her husband and the other 1/2 to her immediate relatives)?

So, my question is: at the time of her passing, did the stepmother's interest go directly to the husband?

Thanks!