How can you truthfully answer potential sellers who ask whether it's legal to take over their payments while they're still legally the owner(s)?  How do you justify it yourselves when it's clearly stated in loan contracts that this is a transfer of ownership?  Should the bank demand accelerated payment, is it true that you can re-sell it to someone else or turn it back over to the owner so there won't be a problem?  

I'd like to see I'm not uncomfortable with this, but I am...