I keep noticing people saying you have to hold properties to make money or trade profit.
As a former appraiser I'm going to tell you what your lender is going to do regardless of area.
When you buy most times it's vacant so the value requested in an appraisal is the sales comparison approach. It's the wrong value to use & the wrong approach for you, the buyer. It's the highest value that you'll receive, as vacant, so it looks like a great deal on paper.
Unfortunately, if you need to refinance or sell with a tenant occupying the property your lender will request the income value with rent comps & a rent schedule to be included in the appraisal. The income value will be different than the sales comparison approach. It will be lower in predominantly owner occupied areas because it's not the highest & best use of the property. It fails 2 of the 4 tests in the HBU, maximally productive & financially feasible. When the lender bases the refi on the income approach (since that's its current usage) the paper equity you thought you had is gone because they originally lent you money based on the sales comparison approach not the income approach.
For example, lets say you purchased a house for $100,000 with the appraised value (sales comparison approach) being $125,000. That appears to give you $25,000 instant equity.
Let's say you refi in 3 years. Your rent amount is $1,000. You bought in a C area. Instead of annualizing the GRM multiplying the rent x 12 & dividing the GRM by 12 to get the value do it monthly because it's easier to understand but yields the same income value.
Monthly
$1,000 (rent) x 75 (GRM - C area) = $75,000.
Annual
$12,000 ($1,000 x 12) x 6.25 (75÷12) = $75,000
If you buy this way that's why you're told to hold properties because the value in the appraisal wasn't the intended use of the property therefore, it's the wrong value. Instead of having $25,000 equity you start $25,000 in the hole.
If you want to realize the sales price of $125,000 it has to be vacant, renovated again, & sold to an owner occupant to match the stated value of how you purchased.
If you sell tenant occupied it would be to another investor that's not going to pay retail or care how much you owe. They buy to invest also.
On the other hand if you buy in a predominantly rental area the following example is used.
Sales Comparison value of $50,000 (sales comparison is included in income value appraisals even if it's not the highest & best use. Its standard to be included)
Let's say it's a D area. Rent is $750 a month.
$750 x 65 = $48,750
Buy based on the correct value & property usage.
Buy as if you have to sell tomorrow.
Be able to sell tomorrow if you wanted & make a profit. That's investing. Holding for appreciation is prospecting. Every 7-10 years there is an economic downturn. That's when you would be selling based on advice I see given a lot on BP.
It makes no sense to buy for a 1% rule because you're buying for a different usage than what you will be using the property for but you are funding the business of the investor you purchased from that is selling based on the 1% rule because they sold based on the wrong stated value in the appraisal for the intended use that is different than what you plan on doing with the property.
I've appraised hundreds of these in my career & its caught many unsuspecting investors with the pants down so to speak.
If you're buying ask for the income value, rent comps, & rent schedule to be included in the appraisal when you purchase. Don't get caught trying to refi or sell occupied & think you'll get the sales comparison value. It won't happen.
Best of luck to you investing. Be sure you match value with intended use & highest & best use before you buy a property.